As UPSC CSE Prelims 2027 is still ahead, building a strong foundation alongside regular current affairs preparation is essential. UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs–based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and review the detailed answers with explanations to strengthen conceptual clarity and exam readiness.

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Consider the following statements:

1. The proportion of sugar used for ethanol production has increased in the 2025-26 season compared to 2022-23.

2. In India, nearly three-fourths of India’s ethanol production comes from sugar, and the remainder comes from grains, particularly maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to the Indian Economy section of the UPSC Prelims syllabus, particularly agriculture, biofuels, energy transition and government initiatives related to ethanol blending.

— The government rejected suggestions that the recent rise in sugar prices was linked to the diversion of sugar for ethanol production, attributing the increase instead to lower domestic output, rising festive-season demand, tighter global supplies and hoarding.

— In a statement, the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution said the government had taken several steps to improve availability and check prices, including imposing stock limits on traders and approving duty-free imports of raw sugar.

— According to the government, the proportion of sugar used for ethanol production has declined to around 9% in the 2025-26 season from about 12% in 2022-23. It added that nearly three-fourths of India’s ethanol production now comes from grains, particularly maize. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

— The government attributed the increase to lower-than-expected domestic sugar production, higher demand ahead of the festive season, crop damage caused by weather and disease, tightening supplies in the global market, and speculation and hoarding by some sections of the industry.

— The government has additionally approved duty-free imports of 1 million tonnes of raw sugar and ordered joint teams of central and state government officials to physically verify stocks held by sugar mills to check hoarding and artificial shortages.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Which of the following are the regional groups represented in the United Nations?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to UPSC Prelims as it tests awareness of the United Nations system and its institutional structure, an important component of the International Relations and International Organisations portion of the syllabus.

— India recently launched its campaign to serve the two-year (2028-29) term on the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). If elected, this will be India’s 9th time on the UNSC. The election will be held in June 2027. The other contestant for the one seat from Asia is Tajikistan.

— The United Nations is divided into five regional groups representing Asia, Africa, Latin America, Eastern Europe, and Western Europe & Others (WEOG). The latter comprises the United States, Canada, Australia, New Zealand and Israel.

— The Eastern Europe group is reminiscent of the Cold War era, with the UNSC’s permanent membership (P5) of the United States, United Kingdom, France and Russia also representing the victorious Allied powers, plus China.

— The UNSC also has 10 non-permanent members elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms. These include three from Africa, one from Eastern Europe, and two each from Asia, Latin America and WEOG.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

The Shetty Commission report was primarily constituted:

(a) To examine the working conditions and administrative structure of the higher judiciary.

(b) To recommend measures for improving the financial autonomy of the judiciary by examining the sources of funding for High Courts and the Supreme Court.

(c) To examine the appointment and transfer of judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, including the functioning of the collegium system.

(d) To examine the pay, service conditions and recruitment of the subordinate judiciary.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to UPSC Prelims as it tests knowledge of judicial administration and institutional mechanisms in India, particularly commissions related to the functioning of the judiciary. It also helps aspirants distinguish between different constitutional and administrative bodies associated with the functioning of the judiciary.

— The Supreme Court on Friday (August 21), by a 2:1 majority, retained its 2025 decision requiring prior professional exposure before entry into the subordinate judiciary but significantly altered how that requirement would operate.

— While the court declined to revisit its fundamental conclusion that future judges should have some familiarity with the functioning of courts, it held that such exposure need not come explicitly from practice at the Bar and included a year of judicial academic training and one year of supervised clerkship instead.

— The bench comprising Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and Justice A G Masih gave the majority, saying that “a judicial service which demands adequate maturity and practical exposure must also remain sufficiently attractive to the most capable young lawyers” warning that overly burdensome entry requirements could discourage precisely the candidates the rule seeks to attract.

— Most states required a minimum three years of practice as a lawyer before they could sit for the examination for the Civil Judge (Junior Division) entry-level post in the district judiciary.

— In 1993, the Supreme Court made this requirement uniform across the country and held that “the recruitment of law graduates as judicial officers without any training or background of lawyering has not proved to be a successful experiment,” and said that “neither knowledge derived from books nor pre-service training can be an adequate substitute for the first-hand experience of the working of the court-system”.

— That rule eventually changed after the formation of the Shetty Commission under the chairmanship of Justice K J Shetty, which was primarily constituted to examine pay and service conditions in the subordinate judiciary but was also asked to review how judges are recruited, including the qualifications that were required to enter judicial service.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the right to die with dignity, consider the following statements:

1. The right to die with dignity flows from the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.

2. In Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996), the Supreme Court held that the right to life includes the right to live with dignity and, in certain circumstances, to die with dignity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to the Indian Polity and Constitution section of the UPSC Prelims syllabus. The topic is also relevant because questions on constitutional rights, landmark judgments, human dignity and the evolving scope of Article 21 require conceptual clarity rather than mere factual recall.

— A bench comprising Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta upheld the constitutional validity of hanging as a mode of executing a death sentence, dismissing a PIL that argued the method is scientifically unreliable and violates the right to a dignified death under Article 21.

— A bench comprising Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta upheld the constitutional validity of hanging as a mode of executing a death sentence, dismissing a PIL that argued the method is scientifically unreliable and violates the right to a dignified death under Article 21.

— Hanging is designed to work through a calculated “drop” based on the person’s height and weight, meant to cause a fracture-dislocation at the C2-C3 vertebrae and bring about near-instant unconsciousness.

— The right to die with dignity flows from the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court in Gian Kaur v State of Punjab (1996) held that the right to life includes the right to live and consequently to die with dignity. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

The term ‘Indian gateways’ in satellite communication refers to:

(a) Satellite Earth Station Gateways physically located within Indian territory that interface between space-based satellite constellations and domestic terrestrial telecom networks.

(b) Satellite gateways located exclusively outside Indian territory that provide communication services to Indian users.

(c) Ground stations located outside India that route satellite signals through Indian communication satellites.

(d) Dedicated communication links connecting Indian satellites directly with foreign satellite networks.

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to UPSC Prelims as it tests understanding of satellite communication infrastructure and emerging developments in the space sector, linking with the Science & Technology syllabus.

— Musk’s Starlink is among the operators that have secured GMPCS (global mobile personal communication by satellite) licences and other statutory approvals needed to launch satellite communication, or satcom, services in the country. Others who have received it include Bharti-backed Eutelsat OneWeb, and Jio Satellite Communications Ltd, a wholly owned subsidiary of Jio Platforms. Jeff Bezos-owned Amazon Leo is also in contention for a licence.

— Last July, Starlink had received what industry executives said was the last regulatory approval needed to launch the service in India from the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) granted authorisation to the satcom company for its satellite constellation. Before that, the company had received an operator licence from the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), three years after first applying for one.

— The Starlink Gen1 Constellation is a global constellation with 4,408 satellites orbiting earth in altitude varying between 540-570 km, capable of providing around 600 Gbps throughput over India.

— Despite the regulatory clearance, it is understood the government is yet to green-light formal launch of these services over security concerns. The concern particularly stems from anxieties around foreign satcom operators potentially bypassing Indian gateways to offer their services, an event when the government might lose control over the service.

— In satellite communication, Indian gateways refer to Satellite Earth Station Gateways physically located within Indian territory that interface between space-based satellite constellations and domestic terrestrial telecom networks. All traffic originating or terminating in India must process entirely through these local ground facilities.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Vaishya Tekri, consider the following statements:

1. The 1938–39 excavations unveiled large bricks and punch-marked coins from the Mauryan period.

2. It is a Buddhist site located in Uttar Pradesh.

3. The stupa was constructed using a conventional solid-brick core with stone masonry on the exterior.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to UPSC Prelims because it connects ancient Indian history, Buddhist heritage and archaeological discoveries with recent developments in the news.

— The Madhya Pradesh government has begun restoring Buddhist monuments linked to the Mauryan emperor Ashoka, starting with a fresh excavation at Vaishya Tekri.

— In his 2011 paper, Aśoka and Buddhist Nuns: Early Buddhism in Ujjain and Malwa, academic Peter Skilling wrote: “The largest stupa, popularly called Vaisya Tekri, is about 350 feet at its base and 100 feet high. Nearby is a smaller stupa, called Kumbhar (or Kumhar) Tekri. Both are relatively undisturbed, except for the unfortunate fact that a power line runs between them, and a giant pylon squats rudely on Kumbhar Tekri’s shoulder.” Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— Initial excavations by the Department of Archaeology of the erstwhile Gwalior State in 1938–39 unveiled large bricks and punch-marked coins, prompting archaeologists to date the structures to the Mauryan period. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The monument’s size was only one part of what fascinated the excavators; its construction was unlike what they had encountered elsewhere. Instead of a conventional solid brick structure, the heart of the monument was made from local blackish murum, rammed hard to form the massive core. The exterior was then faced with brick masonry laid in mud mortar. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements about the Treaty of Rawalpindi:

1. The Treaty of Rawalpindi was signed between the British Indian government and Afghanistan, marking Afghanistan’s independence.

2. Under the Treaty, Afghanistan accepted its previous borders, which Britain viewed as reaffirming the Durand Line.

3. The Treaty required Britain to continue advising Afghanistan on its external relations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant because the Treaty of Rawalpindi (1919) is connected with the Third Anglo-Afghan War and Afghanistan’s independence, placing it within the broader context of British India’s frontier policy and the Indian freedom-struggle period.

— On August 19 every year, there are celebrations and festivities in Kabul and other parts of Afghanistan. Some 107 years ago, the Treaty of Rawalpindi was signed between the British Indian government, represented by Sir A H Grant, and Afghanistan, represented by Sardar Ali Ahmad Khan, marking Afghanistan’s independence in its foreign affairs from British control. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The Treaty was signed on August 8, 1919, while Afghanistan observes its Independence Day on August 19, marking its regained control over its foreign affairs after the Third Anglo-Afghan War.

— The treaty did not settle the frontier itself. That question goes back further — to November 1893, when Amir Abdur Rahman Khan and the British diplomat Sir Mortimer Durand agreed on a line separating British India’s sphere of influence from Afghanistan’s. The 2,600-km “Durand Line”, cutting through the mountains of the Pashtun land in between, was originally meant to demarcate British-controlled territory from the Afghan state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The Durand Line was a result of Britain’s “Forward Policy” era — a period shaped by the political and diplomatic rivalry between the British and Russian empires in Central and South Asia during the 19th and early 20th centuries.

— Under the 1919 Treaty, Afghanistan formally accepted the border arrangements it had earlier agreed to. Britain read this as a reaffirmation of the Durand Line. But Kabul has since argued that the 1893 Agreement demarcated the area as a buffer zone and was never intended to be permanent, though the original text does not mention an expiry date of the treaty. The Afghan Consulate official also reiterated that the Durand Line was “a buffer zone”.

— The Treaty eliminated the previous arrangement, which forced the Afghan Amir to follow British advise on external affairs. The accompanying British letter reaffirmed Afghanistan’s freedom and independence in both internal and external matters. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

(a) Gene-editing therapy designed to lower low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol

(b) mRNA-based vaccine developed to prevent cardiovascular diseases

(c) Monoclonal antibody developed to treat familial hypercholesterolemia

(d) Small-molecule drug designed to reduce cholesterol absorption in the intestine

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to the Science and Technology section of the UPSC Prelims syllabus. It also helps aspirants track new-generation therapies and clinical developments, an area from which UPSC can frame conceptual, application-based questions rather than relying only on conventional biotechnology terminology.

— A new experimental therapy from US pharma major Eli Lilly and its subsidiary Verve Therapeutics — involving a single shot infusion that may bust LDL (low-density lipoprotein), or bad cholesterol, at one go and which sharply lowered LDL by 62% for as long as 18 months after treatment in a trial — continues to make waves among cardiologists. The therapy works by permanently switching off a cholesterol-related gene called PCSK9 inside the liver, taming LDL forever.

— LDL is called “bad cholesterol” because high levels make it stick to artery walls and form hard fatty deposits called plaque. These deposits narrow the arteries and block blood flow, elevating the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

— VERVE-102 is not a traditional drug. It is a form of in vivo (administered directly to the patient’s body) gene editing, which allows scientists to alter DNA and modify gene function. Instead of temporarily blocking cholesterol production with medicines, researchers use genetic instructions delivered through an intravenous infusion to permanently alter liver cells from producing it altogether.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), consider the following statements:

1. India launched the IPOI to promote a free, open, inclusive and rules-based Indo-Pacific through cooperation across multiple maritime domains.

2. The IPOI is a treaty-based regional organisation with legally binding obligations for its participating countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to the International Relations section of the UPSC Prelims syllabus, particularly India’s relations with regional and international groupings and initiatives. It helps aspirants understand India’s approach to the Indo-Pacific, including emerging institutional and cooperative frameworks.

— India and the UK reviewed the ongoing defence industrial cooperation with emphasis on Research & Development through the India-UK vision 2035 and the 10-year Defence Industrial Roadmap.

— The 25th India-UK Defence Consultative Group meeting was held between Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh with the Permanent Under Secretary (PUS) for Defence of UK Jeremy Pocklington in New Delhi.

— In a statement, the Defence Ministry said that both sides agreed to expand bilateral exchanges between the armed forces of India and UK through joint exercises, training and capacity building. They also acknowledged the robust maritime security collaboration in the Indo-Pacific, including establishment of the Regional Maritime Security Centre of Excellence (RMSCE) under the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI).

— India established the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) in 2019 to promote a free, open, inclusive, and rules-based Indo-Pacific through cooperation in a variety of maritime fields such as maritime security, ecology, disaster management, capacity building, and resource sharing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— The IPOI is a non-treaty-based, open, and inclusive effort that promotes voluntary cooperation among member countries and groups. It does not generate any legally binding duties. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:

1. CITES regulates international trade in wildlife specimens only when the species concerned is classified as endangered by the IUCN.

2. CITES classifies regulated species into two Appendices based on the degree of protection required.

3. CITES is implemented through a single international authority that issues permits and certificates for the trade of listed species.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2027?

This question is relevant to the Environment and Ecology section of the UPSC Prelims syllabus, particularly international environmental conventions and wildlife conservation frameworks. It also tests conceptual understanding of CITES Appendices, implementation mechanisms and its relationship with wildlife conservation, areas where UPSC can frame statement-based questions to test precise factual knowledge.

— Vantara, the wildlife conservation, rescue and rehabilitation centre in Gujarat’s Jamnagar, on Wednesday submitted a set of voluntary commitments to the CITES Management Authority of India aimed at ensuring better governance, transparency and compliance.

— The commitments said that Vantara will ensure adherence to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

— CITES was created in response to a resolution passed by members of the World Conservation Union (now known as the International Union for Conservation of Nature).

— CITES does not control international trade solely when a species is listed as endangered by the IUCN. CITES has its own listing system, with species included in different Appendices based on the level of protection necessary. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

— CITES contains three Appendices. They establish varying levels of restrictions for international trading in listed species. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

— CITES implementation is not managed by a single international entity. Each Party selects its own Management Authority and Scientific Authority to carry out the Convention within its jurisdiction. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 09 – August 15)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (August 02 – August 08)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 26 – August 01)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 19 – July 25)

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz (July 12 – July 18)

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